O(n!) isn't equivalent to O(n^n). It is asymptotically less than O(n^n).
O(log(n!)) is equal to O(n log(n)). Here is one way to prove that:
Note that by using the log rule log(mn) = log(m) + log(n) we can see that:
log(n!) = log(n*(n-1)*...2*1) = log(n) + log(n-1) + ... log(2) + log(1)
Proof that O(log(n!)) ⊆ O(n log(n)):
log(n!) = log(n) + log(n-1) + ... log(2) + log(1)
Which is less than:
log(n) + log(n) + log(n) + log(n) + ... + log(n) = n*log(n)
So O(log(n!)) is a subset of O(n log(n))
Proof that O(n log(n)) ⊆ O(log(n!)):
log(n!) = log(n) + log(n-1) + ... log(2) + log(1)
Which is greater than (the left half of that expression with all (n-x) replaced by n/2:
log(n/2) + log(n/2) + ... + log(n/2) = floor(n/2)*log(floor(n/2)) ∈ O(n log(n))
So O(n log(n)) is a subset of O(log(n!)).
Since O(n log(n)) ⊆ O(log(n!)) ⊆ O(n log(n)), they are equivalent big-Oh classes.